GRE care: Reading Comprehension Questions and answer Part – 12 [Longer Passages]
![GRE care: Reading Comprehension Questions and answer Part – 12 [Longer Passages]](../wp-content/uploads/2013/02/longe-300x156.jpg)

Longer Passages
Passages
The passages in this section are the final test of your reading comprehension skills. They test your abil¬ity to read large blocks of text, define words in context, and respond to questions about content. You’ll find that the longer passages in this section are the most difficult of all the ones you have read in this book so far, but at this point, you are more than ready for them. Some of the passages are about new research, geology, history, and even Greek mythology. Some of the passages contain technical and scientific information, much of it related to medicine. If the material looks daunting because of unfamiliar vocabulary, read the passage in a relaxed manner to get a sense of its overall meaning and organizational pattern. After that, go back and read the passage one paragraph at a time. The material will seem less overwhelming if you consider it in smaller chunks. Notes or outlines may also help clarify the material for you.
Remember that the reading process is the same whether the text is long or short, complex or simple, and the way
Question 364 to 420:
The coast of the state of Maine is one of the most irregular in the world. A straight line running from the southernmost coastal city to the north¬ernmost coastal city would measure about 225 miles. If you followed the coastline between these points, you would travel more than ten times as far. This irregularity is the result of what is called a drowned coastline. The term comes from the glacial activity of the ice age. At that time, the whole area that is now Maine was part of a mountain range that towered above the sea. As the glacier descended, however, it expended enormous force on those mountains, and they sank into the sea.
As the mountains sank, ocean water charged over the lowest parts of the remaining land, form¬ing a series of twisting inlets and lagoons of con¬torted grottos and nooks. The highest parts of the former mountain range, nearest the shore, remained as islands. Mt. Desert Island is one of the most famous of all the islands left behind by the glacier. Marine fossils found here were 225 feet above sea level, indicating the level of the shore¬line prior to the glacier.
The 2,500-mile-long rocky and jagged coastline of Maine keeps watch over nearly two thousand islands. Many of these islands are tiny and uninhabited, but many are home to thriving communities. Mt. Desert Island is one of the largest, most beautiful of the Maine coast islands. Measuring 16 miles by 12 miles, Mt. Desert was essentially formed as two distinct islands. It is split almost in half by Somes Sound, a deep and narrow stretch of water, seven miles long.
For years, Mt. Desert Island, particularly its major settlement, Bar Harbor, afforded summer homes for the wealthy. Recently though, Bar Harbor has become a burgeoning arts commu¬nity as well. But, the best part of the island is the unspoiled forest land known as Acadia National Park. Because the island sits on the boundary line between the temperate and sub-Arctic zones, the island supports the flora and fauna of both zones as well as beach, inland, and alpine plants. It also lies in a major bird migration lane and is a resting spot for many birds. The estab¬lishment of Acadia National Park in 1916 means that this natural reserve will be perpetually avail-able to all people, not just the wealthy. Visitors to Acadia may receive nature instruction from the park naturalists as well as enjoy camping, hiking, cycling, and boating. Or they may choose to spend time at the archeological museum, learn¬ing about the Stone Age inhabitants of the island.
The best view on Mt. Desert Island is from the top of Cadillac Mountain. This mountain rises 1,532 feet, making it the highest mountain on the Atlantic seaboard. From the summit, you can gaze back toward the mainland or out over the Atlantic Ocean and contemplate the beauty created by a retreating glacier.
365. Which of the following lists of topics best out¬lines the information in the selection?
a. Ice-age glacial activity The Islands of Casco Bay Formation of Cadillac Mountain Summer residents of Mt. Desert Island
b. Formation of a drowned coastline The topography of Mt. Desert Island The environment of Mt. Desert Island Tourist attractions on Mt. Desert Island
c. Mapping the Maine coastline
The arts community at Bar Harbor History of the National Park System Climbing
Cadillac Mountain
d. The effect of glaciers on small islands Stone-age dwellers on Mt. Desert Island The importance of biodiversity Hiking in Acadia National Park
366. Which of the following statements best
expresses the main idea of the fourth para-graph of the selection?
a. The wealthy residents of Mt. Desert Island selfishly kept it to themselves.
b. Acadia National Park is one of the smallest of the national parks.
c. On Mt. Desert Island, there is great tension between the year-round residents and the summer tourists.
d. Due to its location and environment, Mt. Desert Island supports an incredibly diverse animal and plant life.
367. According to the selection, the large number of small islands along the coast of Maine are the result of
a. glaciers forcing a mountain range into the sea.
b. Maine’s location between the temperate and sub-Arctic zones.
c. the irregularity of the Maine coast.
d. the need for summer communities for wealthy tourists and artists.
368. The content of the fourth paragraph indicates that the writer believes that
a. the continued existence of national parks is threatened by budget cuts.
b. the best way to preserve the environment on Mt. Desert Island is to limit the number of visitors.
c. national parks allow large numbers of peo¬ple to visit and learn about interesting wilderness areas.
d. Mt. Desert Island is the most interesting tourist attraction in Maine.
369. According to the selection, the coast of Maine is
a. 2,500 miles long.
b. 3,500 miles long.
c. 225 miles long.
d. 235 miles long.
Today, bicycles are elegantly simple machines that are common around the world. Many people ride bicycles for recreation, whereas others use them as a means of transportation. The first bicycle, called a draisienne, was invented in Germany in 1818 by Baron Karl de Drais de Sauerbrun. Because it was made of wood, the draisienne wasn’t very durable nor did it have pedals. Riders moved it by pushing their feet against the ground.
In 1839, Kirkpatrick Macmillan, a Scottish blacksmith, invented a much better bicycle. Macmillan’s machine had tires with iron rims to keep them from getting worn down. He also used foot-operated cranks, similar to pedals, so his bicycle could be ridden at a quick pace. It didn’t look much like the modern bicycle, though, because its back wheel was substantially larger than its front wheel. Although Macmillan’s bicy¬cles could be ridden easily, they were never pro¬duced in large numbers.
In 1861, Frenchman Pierre Michaux and his brother Ernest invented a bicycle with an improved crank mechanism. They called their bicycle a velocipede, but most people called it a “bone shaker” because of the jarring effect of the wood and iron frame. Despite the unflatter¬ing nickname, the velocipede was a hit. After a few years, the Michaux family was making hundreds of the machines annually, mostly for fun-seeking young people.
Ten years later, James Starley, an English inventor, made several innovations that revolu-tionized bicycle design. He made the front wheel many times larger than the back wheel, put a gear on the pedals to make the bicycle more efficient, and lightened the wheels by using wire spokes. Although this bicycle was much lighter and less tiring to ride, it was still clumsy, extremely top- heavy, and ridden mostly for entertainment.
It wasn’t until 1874 that the first truly mod¬ern bicycle appeared on the scene. Invented by another Englishman, H.J. Lawson, the safety bicy¬cle would look familiar to today’s cyclists. The safety bicycle had equal-sized wheels, which made it much less prone to toppling over. Lawson also attached a chain to the pedals to drive the rear wheel. By 1893, the safety bicycle had been further improved with air-filled rubber tires, a diamond¬shaped frame, and easy braking. With the improvements provided by Lawson, bicycles became extremely popular and useful for trans¬portation. Today, they are built, used, and enjoyed all over the world.
370. There is enough information in this passage to
show that
a. several people contributed to the develop¬ment of the modern bicycle.
b. only a few velocipedes built by the Michaux family are still in existence.
c. for most of the nineteenth century, few people rode bicycles just for fun.
d. bicycles with wheels of different sizes can¬not be ridden easily.
371. The first person to use a gear system on bicy¬cles was
a. H.J. Lawson.
b. Kirkpatrick Macmillan.
c. Pierre Michaux.
d. James Starley.
372. This passage was most likely written in
order to
a. persuade readers to use bicycles for transportation.
b. describe the problems that bicycle manufacturers encounter.
c. compare bicycles used for fun with bicycles used for transportation.
d. tell readers a little about the history of the bicycle.
373. Macmillan added iron rims to the tires of his
bicycle to
a. add weight to the bicycle.
b. make the tires last longer.
c. make the ride less bumpy.
d. make the ride less tiring.
374. Read the following sentence from the fourth paragraph:
Ten years later, James Starley, an English inventor, made several innovations that revolutionized bicycle design.
As it is used in the sentence, the underlined
word revolutionized most nearly means
a. cancelled.
b. changed drastically.
c. became outdated.
d. exercised control over.
375. Which of the following statements from the
passage represents the writer’s opinion?
a. The safety bicycle would look familiar to today’s cyclists.
b. Two hundred years ago, bicycles didn’t even exist.
c. The Michaux brothers called their bicycle a velocipede.
d. Macmillan’s machine had tires with iron rims.
One of the most hazardous conditions a fire- 376. fighter will ever encounter is a backdraft (also known as a smoke explosion). A backdraft can occur in the hot-smoldering phase of a fire when burning is incomplete and there is not enough oxygen to sustain the fire. Unburned carbon par¬ticles and other flammable products, combined with the intense heat, may cause instantaneous 377. combustion if more oxygen reaches the fire.
Firefighters should be aware of the condi-tions that indicate the possibility for a backdraft to occur. When there is a lack of oxygen during a fire, the smoke becomes filled with carbon diox-ide or carbon monoxide and turns dense gray or black. Other warning signs of a potential back- 378. draft are little or no visible flame, excessive heat, smoke leaving the building in puffs, muffled sounds, and smoke-stained windows.
Proper ventilation will make a backdraft less likely. Opening a room or building at the highest point allows heated gases and smoke to be released gradually. However, suddenly breaking a 379. window or opening a door is a mistake, because it allows oxygen to rush in, causing an explosion.
A backdraft is a dangerous condition for fire¬fighters mainly because
a. there is not enough oxygen for breathing.
b. the heat is extremely intense.
c. the smoke is dangerously thick.
d. an explosion occurs.
Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a potential backdraft warning sign?
a. windows stained with smoke
b. flames shooting up from the building
c. puffs of smoke leaving the building
d. more intense heat than usual
To prevent the possibility of a backdraft, a fire¬fighter should
a. carry an oxygen tank.
b. open a door to allow gases to escape.
c. make an opening at the top of the building.
d. break a window to release carbon particles.
When compared with a hot, smoldering fire, a fire with visible, high-reaching flames
a. has more oxygen available for combustion.
b. has more carbon dioxide available for consumption.
c. produces more dense gray smoke.
d. is more likely to cause a backdraft.
The human body can tolerate only a small range of temperature, especially when the per¬son is engaged in vigorous activity. Heat reac¬tions usually occur when large amounts of water and/or salt are lost through excessive sweating following strenuous exercise. When the body becomes overheated and cannot elim¬inate this excess heat, heat exhaustion and heat stroke are possible.
Heat exhaustion is generally characterized by clammy skin, fatigue, nausea, dizziness, profuse perspiration, and sometimes fainting, resulting from an inadequate intake of water and the loss of fluids. First aid treatment for this condition includes having the victim lie down, raising the feet 8 to 12 inches, applying cool, wet cloths to the skin, and giving the victim sips of salt water (1 teaspoon per glass, half a glass every 15 minutes) over a 1-hour period.
Heat stroke is much more serious; it is an immediate life-threatening situation. The char¬acteristics of heat stroke are a high body temper¬ature (which may reach 106° F or more); a rapid pulse; hot, dry skin; and a blocked sweating mechanism. Victims of this condition may be unconscious, and first-aid measures should be directed at quickly cooling the body. The victim should be placed in a tub of cold water or repeat¬edly sponged with cool water until his or her temperature is sufficiently lowered. Fans or air conditioners will also help with the cooling process. Care should be taken, however, not to over-chill the victim once the temperature is below 102° F.
380. The most immediate concern of a person tending to a victim of heat stroke should be to
a. get salt into the victim’s body.
b. raise the victim’s feet.
c. lower the victim’s pulse.
d. lower the victim’s temperature.
381. Which of the following is a symptom of heat exhaustion?
a. unconsciousness
b. profuse sweating
c. hot, dry skin
d. a weak pulse
382. Heat stroke is more serious than heat exhaus¬tion because heat stroke victims
a. do not sweat.
b. have no salt in their bodies.
c. cannot take in water.
d. have frequent fainting spells.
383. Symptoms such as nausea and dizziness in a heat exhaustion victim indicate that the per¬son most likely needs to
a. be immediately taken to a hospital.
b. be given more salt water.
c. be immersed in a tub of water.
d. sweat more.
Remember that much scientific and technical writing deals with cold, hard, explicit facts. This means that, with close reading, you stand a good chance of answer¬ing most, if not all, of the questions with confidence.
No longer is asthma considered a condition with isolated, acute episodes of bronchospasm. Rather, asthma is now understood to be a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways—that is, inflammation makes the airways chronically sen-sitive. When these hyperresponsive airways are irritated, airflow is limited, and attacks of cough¬ing, wheezing, chest tightness, and breathing difficulty occur.
Asthma involves complex interactions among inflammatory cells, mediators, and the cells and tissues in the airways. The interactions result in airflow limitation from acute bron- choconstriction, swelling of the airway wall, increased mucus secretion, and airway remodel¬ing. The inflammation also causes an increase in airway responsiveness. During an asthma attack, the patient attempts to compensate by breathing at a higher lung volume in order to keep the air flowing through the constricted airways, and the greater the airway limitation, the higher the lung volume must be to keep airways open. The mor¬phologic changes that occur in asthma include bronchial infiltration by inflammatory cells. Key effector cells in the inflammatory response are the mast cells, T lymphocytes, and eosinophils. Mast cells and eosinophils are also significant partici¬pants in allergic responses, hence the similarities between allergic reactions and asthma attacks. Other changes include mucus plugging of the airways, interstitial edema, and microvascular leakage. Destruction of bronchial epithelium and thickening of the subbasement membrane is also characteristic. In addition, there may be hyper¬trophy and hyperplasia of airway smooth muscle, increase in goblet cell number, and enlargement of submucous glands.
Although causes of the initial tendency toward inflammation in the airways of patients with asthma are not yet certain, to date the strongest identified risk factor is atopy. This inherited familial tendency to have allergic reac¬tions includes increased sensitivity to allergens that are risk factors for developing asthma. Some of these allergens include domestic dust mites, animals with fur, cockroaches, pollens, and molds. Additionally, asthma may be triggered by viral respiratory infections, especially in children. By avoiding these allergens and triggers, a person with asthma lowers his or her risk of irritating sensitive airways. A few avoidance techniques include: keeping the home clean and well venti¬lated, using an air conditioner in the summer months when pollen and mold counts are high, and getting an annual influenza vaccination. Of course, asthma sufferers should avoid tobacco smoke altogether. Cigar, cigarette, or pipe smoke is a trigger whether the patient smokes or inhales the smoke from others. Smoke increases the risk of allergic sensitization in children, increases the severity of symptoms, and may be fatal in chil¬dren who already have asthma. Many of the risk factors for developing asthma may also provoke asthma attacks, and people with asthma may have one or more triggers, which vary from individual to individual. The risk can be further reduced by taking medications that decrease airway inflam¬mation. Most exacerbations can be prevented by the combination of avoiding triggers and taking anti-inflammatory medications. An exception is physical activity, which is a common trigger of exacerbations in asthma patients. However, asthma patients should not necessarily avoid all physical exertion, because some types of activity have been proven to reduce symptoms. Rather, they should work in conjunction with a doctor to design a proper training regimen, which includes the use of medication.
In order to diagnose asthma, a healthcare professional must appreciate the underlying dis¬order that leads to asthma symptoms and understand how to recognize the condition through information gathered from the patient’s history, physical examination, measurements of lung function, and allergic status. Because asthma symptoms vary throughout the day, the respiratory system may appear normal during physical examination. Clinical signs are more likely to be present when a patient is experienc¬ing symptoms; however, the absence of symp¬toms upon examination does not exclude the diagnosis of asthma.
384. According to the passage, what is the name for the familial inclination to have hypersensitiv¬ity to certain allergens?
a. interstitial edema
b. hyperplasia
c. hypertrophy
d. atopy
385. Why does a person suffering from an asthma attack attempt to inhale more air?
a. to prevent the loss of consciousness
b. to keep air flowing through shrunken air passageways
c. to prevent hyperplasia
d. to compensate for weakened mast cells,
T lymphocytes, and eosinophils
386. The passage suggests that in the past, asthma was regarded as which of the following?
a. a result of the overuse of tobacco products
b. a hysterical condition
c. mysterious, unrelated attacks affecting the lungs
d. a chronic condition
387. Which of the following would be the best replacement for the underlined word exacer¬bations in this passage?
a. allergies
b. attacks
c. triggers
d. allergens
388. The passage mentions all of the following bodily changes during an asthma attack EXCEPT
a. severe cramping in the chest.
b. heavy breathing.
c. airways blocked by fluids.
d. constricted airways.
389. Although it is surprising, which of the follow¬ing triggers is mentioned in the passage as possibly reducing the symptoms of asthma in some patients?
a. using a fan instead of an air conditioner in summer months
b. exposure to second-hand cigarette smoke
c. the love of a family pet
d. performing physical exercise
390. Why might a patient with asthma have an apparently normal respiratory system during an examination by a doctor?
a. Asthma symptoms come and go through¬out the day.
b. Severe asthma occurs only after strenuous physical exertion.
c. Doctor’s offices are smoke free and very clean.
d. The pollen and mold count may be low that day.
391. Who might be the most logical audience for
this passage?
a. researchers studying the respiratory system
b. healthcare professionals
c. a mother whose child has been diagnosed with asthma
d. an antismoking activist
392. What is the reason given in this article for why
passive smoke should be avoided by children?
a. A smoke-filled room is a breeding ground for viral respiratory infections.
b. Smoke can stunt an asthmatic child’s growth.
c. Smoke can heighten the intensity of asthma symptoms.
d. Breathing smoke can lead to a fatal asthma attack.
Millions of people in the United States are affected by eating disorders. More than 90% of those afflicted are adolescents or young adult women. Although all eating disorders share some common manifestations, anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating each have dis¬tinctive symptoms and risks.
People who intentionally starve themselves (even while experiencing severe hunger pains) suffer from anorexia nervosa. The disorder, which usually begins around the time of puberty, involves extreme weight loss to at least 15% below the individual’s normal body weight. Many people with the disorder look emaciated but are convinced they are overweight. In patients with anorexia nervosa, starvation can damage vital organs such as the heart and brain. To protect itself, the body shifts into slow gear: Menstrual periods stop, blood pressure rates drop, and thyroid function slows. Excessive thirst and frequent urination may occur. Dehydration contributes to constipation, and reduced body fat leads to lowered body temperature and the inabil¬
ity to withstand cold. Mild anemia, swollen joints, reduced muscle mass, and light-headedness also commonly occur in anorexia nervosa.
Anorexia nervosa sufferers can exhibit sud¬den angry outbursts or become socially with¬drawn. One in ten cases of anorexia nervosa leads to death from starvation, cardiac arrest, other medical complications, or suicide. Clinical depres¬sion and anxiety place many individuals with eat¬ing disorders at risk for suicidal behavior.
People with bulimia nervosa consume large amounts of food and then rid their bodies of the excess calories by vomiting, abusing laxatives or diuretics, taking enemas, or exercising obsessively. Some use a combination of all these forms of purging. Individuals with bulimia who use drugs to stimulate vomiting, bowel movements, or uri¬nation may be in considerable danger, as this practice increases the risk of heart failure. Dieting heavily between episodes of binging and purging is common.
Because many individuals with bulimia binge and purge in secret and maintain normal or above normal body weight, they can often suc¬cessfully hide their problem for years. But bulimia nervosa patients—even those of normal weight— can severely damage their bodies by frequent binge eating and purging. In rare instances, binge eating causes the stomach to rupture; purging may result in heart failure due to loss of vital minerals such as potassium. Vomiting can cause the esophagus to become inflamed and glands near the cheeks to become swollen. As in anorexia nervosa, bulimia may lead to irregular menstrual periods. Psycho¬logical effects include compulsive stealing as well as possible indications of obsessive-compulsive disorder, an illness characterized by repetitive thoughts and behaviors. Obsessive-compulsive disorder can also accompany anorexia nervosa. As with anorexia nervosa, bulimia typically begins during adolescence. Eventually, half of those with
anorexia nervosa will develop bulimia. The con-dition occurs most often in women but is also found in men.
Binge-eating disorder is found in about 2% of the general population. As many as one-third of this group are men. It also affects older women, though with less frequency. Recent research shows that binge-eating disorder occurs in about 30% of people participating in med¬ically supervised weight-control programs. This disorder differs from bulimia because its suffer¬ers do not purge. Individuals with binge-eating disorder feel that they lose control of themselves when eating. They eat large quantities of food and do not stop until they are uncomfortably full. Most sufferers are overweight or obese and have a history of weight fluctuations. As a result, they are prone to the serious medical problems associated with obesity, such as high cholesterol, high blood pressure, and diabetes. Obese indi¬viduals also have a higher risk for gallbladder dis¬ease, heart disease, and some types of cancer. Usually they have more difficulty losing weight and keeping it off than do people with other serious weight problems. Like anorexic and bulimic sufferers who exhibit psychological problems, individuals with binge-eating disorder have high rates of simultaneously occurring psy-chiatric illnesses, especially depression.
393. Fatalities occur in what percent of people with
anorexia nervosa?
a. 2%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 30%
394. Which of the following consequences do all the eating disorders mentioned in the passage have in common?
a. heart ailments
b. stomach rupture
c. swollen joints
d. diabetes
395. According to the passage, people with binge- eating disorder are prone to all of the follow¬ing EXCEPT
a. loss of control.
b. depression.
c. low blood pressure.
d. high cholesterol.
396. Which of the following is NOT a statement about people with eating disorders?
a. People with anorexia nervosa commonly have a blood-related deficiency.
b. People with anorexia nervosa perceive themselves as overweight.
c. The female population is the primary group affected by eating disorders.
d. Fifty percent of people with bulimia have had anorexia nervosa.
397. People who have an eating disorder but never-theless appear to be of normal weight are most likely to have
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
b. bulimia nervosa.
c. binge-eating disorder.
d. anorexia nervosa.
398. Glandular functions of eating-disorder patients slow down as a result of
a. lowering body temperatures.
b. excessive thirst and urination.
c. protective measures taken by the body.
d. the loss of essential minerals.
399. The inability to eliminate body waste is related to
a. dehydration.
b. an inflamed esophagus.
c. the abuse of laxatives.
d. weight-control programs.
400. According to the passage, which of the following is true of bulimia patients?
a. They may demonstrate unpredictable social behavior.
b. They often engage in compulsive exercise.
c. They are less susceptible to dehydration than are anorexia patients.
d. They frequently experience stomach ruptures.
401. Which of the following represent up to two- thirds of the binge-eating disorder population?
a. older males
b. older females
c. younger males
d. younger females
Greyhound racing is the sixth most popular spec¬tator sport in the United States. Over the last decade, a growing number of racers have been adopted to spend their retirement as household pets, once their racing careers are over.
Many people hesitate to adopt a retired rac¬ing greyhound because they think only very old dogs are available. Actually, even champion rac¬ers only work until they are about three-and-a- half years old. Because greyhounds usually live to be 12 to 15 years old, their retirement is much longer than their racing careers.
People worry that a greyhound will be more nervous and active than other breeds and will need a large space to run. These are false impres¬sions. Greyhounds have naturally sweet, mild dis¬positions, and while they love to run, they are sprinters rather than distance runners and are sufficiently exercised with a few daily laps around a fenced-in backyard.
Greyhounds do not make good watchdogs, but they are very good with children, get along well with other dogs (and usually cats as well), and are affectionate and loyal. They are intelli¬gent, well-behaved dogs, usually housebroken in only a few days. A retired racing greyhound is a wonderful pet for almost anyone.
402. Based on the tone of the passage, the author’s
main purpose is to
a. teach prospective owners how to transform their racing greyhound into a good pet.
b. show how the greyhound’s nature makes it equally good as racer and pet.
c. encourage people to adopt retired racing greyhounds.
d. objectively present the pros and cons of adopting a racing greyhound.
403. According to the passage, adopting a grey-hound is a good idea for people who
a. do not have children.
b. live in apartments.
c. do not usually like dogs.
d. already have another dog or a cat.
404. Which of the following is implied by the passage?
a. The public is more aware of greyhounds than they used to be.
b. Greyhounds are more competitive than other dogs.
c. Greyhound racing should not be allowed.
d. People who own pet rabbits should not adopt greyhounds.
405. One drawback of adopting a greyhound is that
a. greyhounds are not good with children.
b. greyhounds are old when they retire from racing.
c. the greyhound’s sensitivity makes it temperamental.
d. greyhounds are not good watch dogs.
406. This passage is most like an advertisement
because it
a. uses statistics to prove its point.
b. does not present information to substanti¬ate its claims.
c. says nothing negative about greyhounds.
d. encourages people to do something.
407. According to the passage, a retired racing grey-hound available for adoption will most likely be
a. happy to be retiring.
b. easily housebroken.
c. a champion, or else it would have been euthanized.
d. less high-strung than those that are not available for adoption.
The lives of the Ancient Greeks revolved around eris, a concept by which they defined the uni¬verse. They believed that the world existed in a condition of opposites. If there was good, then there was evil, if there was love, then there was hatred; joy, then sorrow; war then peace; and so on. The Greeks believed that good eris occured when one held a balanced outlook on life and coped with problems as they arose. It was a kind of ease of living that came from trying to bring together the great opposing forces in nature. Bad eris was evident in the violent conditions that ruled men’s lives. Although these things were found in nature and sometimes could not be controlled, it was believed that bad eris occurred when one ignored a problem, letting it grow larger until it destroyed not only that person, but his family as well. The Ancient Greeks saw eris as a goddess: Eris, the Goddess of Discord, better known as Trouble.
One myth that expresses this concept of bad eris deals with the marriage of King Peleus and the river goddess Thetis. Zeus, the supreme ruler, learns that Thetis would bear a child strong enough to destroy its father. Not wanting to father his own ruin, Zeus convinces Thetis to marry a human, a mortal whose child could never challenge the gods. He promises her, among other things, the greatest wedding in all of Heaven and Earth and allows the couple to invite whomever they please. This is one of the first
mixed marriages of Greek Mythology and the lesson learned from it still applies today. They do invite everyone . . . except Eris, the Goddess of Discord. In other words, instead of facing the problems brought on by a mixed marriage, they turn their backs on them. They refused to deal directly with their problems and the result is tragic. In her fury, Eris arrives, ruins the wedding, causes a jealous feud between the three major goddesses over a golden apple, and sets in place the conditions that lead to the Trojan War. The war would take place 20 years in the future, but it would result in the death of the only child of the bride and groom, Achilles. Eris would destroy the parents’ hopes for their future, leaving the couple with no legitimate heirs to the throne.
Hence, when we are told, “If you don’t invite trouble, trouble comes,” it means that if we don’t deal with our problems, our problems will deal with us … with a vengeance! It is easy to see why the Greeks considered many of their myths learning myths, for this one teaches us the best way to defeat that which can destroy us.
408. According to the passage, the ancient
Greeks believed that the concept of eris
defined the universe
a. as a hostile, violent place.
b. as a condition of opposites.
c. as a series of problems.
d. as a mixture of gods and man.
409. Most specifically, bad eris is defined in the passage as
a. the violent conditions of life.
b. the problems man encounters.
c. the evil goddess who has a golden apple.
d. the murderer of generations.
410. It can be inferred that Zeus married Thetis
off because
a. he needed to buy the loyalty of a great king of mankind.
b. he feared the gods would create bad eris by competing over her.
c. he feared the Trojan War would be fought over her.
d. he feared having an affair with her and, subsequently, a child by her.
412. According to the passage, Achilles
a. defeated Zeus during the Trojan War.
b. dies during the Trojan War.
c. was born 20 years after the war because of the disruption Eris caused at the wedding.
d. was the illegitimate son of Peleus.
413. Which of the following statements is the mes-sage offered in the myth?
a. Do not
b. Do not
c. Do not
in life.
d. Do not
411. It can also be inferred that Zeus did not fear a
child sired by King Peleus because
a. he knew that the child could not climb Mt. Olympus.
b. he knew that the child would be killed in the Trojan War.
c. he knew that no matter how strong a mor¬tal child was, he couldn’t overthrow an immortal god.
d. he knew that Thetis would always love him above everyone else.
She was one of those pretty, charming women who are born, as if by an error of Fate, into a petty official’s family. She had no dowry,1 no hopes, nor the slightest chance of being loved and married by a rich man—so she slipped into marriage with a minor civil servant.
Unable to afford jewels, she dressed simply: But she was wretched, for women have neither caste nor breeding—in them beauty, grace, and charm replace pride of birth. Innate refinement, instinctive elegance, and wit give them their place on the only scale that counts, and these make humble girls the peers of the grandest ladies.
She suffered, feeling that every luxury should rightly have been hers. The poverty of her rooms— the shabby walls, the worn furniture, the ugly upholstery caused her pain. All these things that another woman of her class would not even have noticed, made her angry. The very sight of the lit¬tle Breton girl who cleaned for her awoke rueful thoughts and the wildest dreams in her mind. She dreamt of rooms with Oriental hangings, lighted by tall, bronze torches, and with two huge footmen in knee breeches made drowsy by the heat from the stove, asleep in the wide armchairs. She dreamt of great drawing rooms upholstered in old silks, with fragile little tables holding priceless knickknacks, and of enchanting little sitting rooms designed for tea-time chats with famous, sought-after men whose attentions all women longed
She sat down to dinner at her round table with its three-day-old cloth, and watched her hus-band lift the lid of the soup tureen and delightedly exclaim: “Ah, a good homemade beef stew! There’s nothing better!” She visualized elegant dinners with gleaming silver and gorgeous china. She yearned for wall hangings peopled with knights and ladies and exotic birds in a fairy forest. She dreamt of eating the pink flesh of trout or the wings of grouse. She had no proper wardrobe, no jewels, nothing. And those were the only things that she loved—she felt she was made for them. She would have so loved to charm, to be envied, to be admired and sought after.
1 dowry: property a woman brought to her husband in marriage.
This passage was adapted from “The Necklace,” by Guy de
Maupassant.
414. Which word best describes the actual living
conditions of the couple in the selection?
a. destitute
b. poor
c. comfortable
d. wealthy
415. Which line best demonstrates the couple’s true
economic standing?
a. She had no dowry, no hopes, not the slightest chance of being married by a rich man . . .
b. The poverty of her rooms—the shabby walls, the worn furniture, the ugly uphol¬stery caused her pain.
c. She sat down to dinner at her round table with its three-day-old cloth, and watched her husband lift the lid of the soup tureen . . .
d. The very sight of the little Breton girl who cleaned for her awoke rueful thoughts and the wildest dreams in her mind.
416. According to the selection, what can be stated
about the marriage of this woman?
a. She married but was ashamed of the insignificant position her husband held.
b. She married on the rebound after a wealthy suitor had abandoned her.
c. She married for love without realizing the consequences to her social standing.
d. She never loved her husband.
417. What can be inferred about the values of both
husband and wife?
a. They share the same values.
b. The husband values family and simple comforts of home, whereas his wife views these comforts as cause for her anguish.
c. The husband has ceased to enjoy the simple things and only strives to quench his wife’s insatiable desire for luxury.
d. The husband believes that a wholesome meal can solve all problems, while his wife believes it is the presentation of the meal that counts.
418. The main idea of the passage is
a. to have the reader feel great sympathy for the wife.
b. to have the reader feel great sympathy for the husband.
c. to show the class distinctions that were so obvious during the setting of the story.
d. to show the reader how selfish and self-centered the wife is.
419. What part of speech does de Maupassant
employ to weave the rich images he presents
through the wife’s descriptions?
a. adjectives
b. adverbs
c. nouns
d. verbs
Arteries of the heart blocked by plaque can reduce the flow of blood to the heart possibly resulting in heart attack or death. Plaque is actu¬ally fat and cholesterol that accumulates on the inside of the arteries. The arteries of the heart are small and can be blocked by such accumulations. There is a medical procedure that creates more space in the blocked artery by inserting and inflating a tiny balloon into the blood vessel. It is called coronary balloon angioplasty. Angioplasty means “blood vessel repair”When the balloon is inflated, it compresses the plaque against the wall of the artery, creating more space and improving the flow of blood.
Many doctors choose this technique, because it is less invasive than bypass surgery. Yes, both involve entering the body cavity, but in bypass surgery, the chest must be opened, the ribs must be cut, and the section of diseased artery must be removed and replaced. To replace it, the patient’s body is opened, once again, to acquire a healthy section of artery. Usually, this blood vessel is removed from an artery located in the calf of the leg. This means the patient now has two painful incisions that must heal at the same time. There is far more risk in such bypass surgery than in angioplasty, which involves threading a thin tube, called a catheter, into the circulatory system and working it to the damaged artery.
Angioplasty may take between 30 minutes to 3 hours to complete. It begins with a distinctive dye that is injected into the bloodstream. A thin catheter is then inserted into the femoral artery of the leg, near the groin. The doctor monitors the path of the dye using x-rays. He moves the tube
through the heart and into the plaque-filled artery. He inflates the balloon, creating more space, deflates the balloon, and removes the tube. It is important to note that the plaque has not been removed; it has just been compressed against the sides of the artery. Sometimes, a stent may be implanted, a tiny tube of stainless steel that is expandable when necessary. Its function is to keep the artery open.
There is good news and there is bad news. The good news is that the statistics compiled are superb. Ninety percent of all angioplasty proce¬dures are successful. The risk of dying during an operation of this type is less than 2%. The risk of heart attack is also small: 3-5%. Yet heart sur¬geons do not take any risk lightly; therefore, a team of surgeons stands ready to perform bypass surgery if needed. The length of hospitalization is only three days. The bad news is twofold. First, this procedure treats the condition but does not eradicate the cause. In 20% of the cases, there is a recurrence of plaque. Second, angioplasty is not recommended for all patients. The surgeons must consider the patient’s age, physical history, how severe the blockage is, and, finally, the degree of damage to the artery before they make their determination.
420. When coronary arteries are blocked by plaque,
one of the results could be
a. stroke.
b. heart attack.
c. hospitalization.
d. femoral artery deterioration.
Answer to the question number 364 to 420
364. c. The passage reflects all of the choices except
this one.
. This information is clearly stated in the sec¬
ond paragraph. The iron rims kept the tires from getting worn down, and, therefore, the tires lasted longer. Choice a is incorrect because although the iron rims probably did make the machine heavier, that was not Macmillan’s goal. Choice c is incorrect because no information is given about whether iron-rimmed or wooden tires moved more smoothly. There is no sup¬port for choice d.
374. b. Based on the paragraph, this is the only possi¬
ble choice. Starley revolutionized the bicycle; that is, he made many innovative changes. Based on the context, the other choices make no sense.
375. a. This is the only choice that states an opinion.
The writer cannot be certain that the safety bicycle would look familiar to today’s cyclists; it is his or her opinion that this is so. The other choices are presented as facts.
376. d. The first two sentences of the passage indicate
that a backdraft is dangerous because it is an explosion. The other choices are dangers, but they do not define a backdraft.
377. b. The second paragraph indicates that there is lit¬
tle or no visible flame with a potential back- draft. The other choices are listed at the end of the second paragraph as warning signs of a potential backdraft.
378. c. This is stated in the last paragraph. Choice a is
not mentioned in the passage. The other choices would be useless or harmful.
379. a. The passage indicates that hot, smoldering fires
have little or no visible flame and insufficient oxygen. It can reasonably be inferred, then, that more oxygen would produce more visible flames.
380. d. This is stated in the last paragraph (… first aid
measures should be directed at quickly cooling the body). The other responses are first aid for heat exhaustion victims.
381. b. This is stated in the first sentence of the second
paragraph. Choices a and c are symptoms of heat stroke. Choice d is not mentioned.
382. a. Heat stroke victims have a blocked sweating
mechanism, as stated in the third paragraph.
383. b. This information is given in the second para¬
graph: If the victim still suffers from the symp-toms listed in the first sentence of the paragraph, the victim needs more water and salt to help with the inadequate intake of water and the loss of flu¬ids that caused those symptoms.
384. d. Many asthma sufferers have an inherited ten¬
dency to have allergies, referred to as atopy in the third paragraph.
385. b. The fourth sentence of the second paragraph
explains that during an attack the person afflicted with asthma will compensate for con¬stricted airways by breathing a greater volume of air.
386. c. The first sentence of the passage begins, No
longer, indicating that in the past asthma was considered an anomalous inflammation of the bronchi. Now asthma is considered a chronic condition of the lungs.
387. b. An exacerbation is usually defined as an aggra¬
vation of symptoms or increase in the severity of a disease. However, in this passage, exacerba¬tions is interchangeable with asthma attacks.
388. a. Although cramping may occur during asthma
attacks, it is not mentioned in the passage. See the bottom half of the second paragraph for a full explanation of the morphological effects of an attack.
389. d. The third paragraph discusses triggers in
detail. Although using a fan in the summer months sounds good, an air conditioner is recommended when the pollen count is high. Family pets and cigarette smoke are all dis-tinctly inflammatory to asthma sufferers. Only physical activity is touted as a possible symptom reducer.
. Because asthma symptoms vary throughout
the day, relying on the presence of an attack or even just on the presence of a respiratory ail-ment to diagnose asthma is flawed logic.
391. b. All the individuals listed would glean a certain
amount of knowledge from the passage; how-ever, a healthcare professional would find the broad overview of the effects of asthma, com-bined with the trigger avoidance and diagnosis information, most relevant. A research scientist would likely have all this information already. A mother with an asthmatic child would prob-ably not be interested in the diagnosis protocol. The antismoking activist probably would not find enough fodder in this article.
392. d. According to the last part of the third para¬
graph, second-hand smoke can increase the risk of allergic sensitization in children.
393. b. See the third paragraph: “One in ten” (10% of)
cases of anorexia end in death.
394. a. See the second and third paragraphs for refer¬
ence to heart problems with anorexia, the fourth and fifth paragraphs for discussion of heart problems with bulimia, and the last para-graph, where heart disease is mentioned, as a risk in obese people who suffer from binge- eating disorder.
395. c. Near the end of the last paragraph, the passage
indicates that binge-eating disorder patients experience high blood pressure.
396. d. It is the other way around: 50% of people with
anorexia develop bulimia, as stated near the end of the fifth paragraph.
397. b. The first sentence of the fifth paragraph tells us
that bulimia sufferers are often able to keep their problem a secret, partly because they maintain a normal or above-normal weight.
398. c. In the second paragraph, the thyroid gland
function is mentioned as slowing down—one effort on the part of the body to protect itself.
399. a. According to the second paragraph, dehydra¬
tion contributes to constipation.
400. b. As stated in the opening sentence of the fourth
paragraph, bulimia patients may exercise obsessively.
401. d. See the second sentence of the sixth paragraph.
If as many as one-third of the binge-eating dis-order population are men, it stands to reason that up to two-thirds are younger women, given that we have learned that about 90% of all eat-ing disorder sufferers are adolescent and young adult women.
402. c. The tone of the passage is enthusiastic in its rec¬
ommendation of the greyhound as pet and, thereby, encourages people to adopt one. It does not give advice on transforming a grey¬hound (choice a). Except to say that they love to run, the passage does not spend equal time on describing the greyhound as racer (choice b). The author’s tone is not objective (choice d), but rather enthusiastic.
403. d. See the last paragraph. The passage does not
mention b or c. Choice a is clearly wrong; the passage states the opposite.
404. a. See the first paragraph. Choices b, c, and d are
not touched on in the passage.
405. d. See the last paragraph. Choices a, b, and c are
contradicted in the passage.
406. d. The enthusiastic tone of the passage seems
meant to encourage people to adopt retired greyhounds. Choice a is wrong because there is only one statistic in the passage (in the first sentence), and it is not used to prove the point that greyhounds make good pets. Choice b is wrong because the author substantiates every point with information. Choice c is wrong because the passage does make the negative point that greyhounds do not make good watchdogs.
407. b. See the end of the next to last sentence in the
passage. Choices a, c, and d are not to be found in the passage.
408. b. This is stated explicitly in the second sentence
of the passage. Choice a is incorrect because only bad eris was defined as violent. Choice c deals with problems that belong in the domain of mankind, not the universe. Choice d has no support in the passage.
409. a. Again, this is a definition explicitly stated in
the sixth sentence. Choice b is incorrect because a choice dealing with mankind alone is too narrow for a definition of eris, which deals with the entire universe. Choice c is incorrect because it only deals with one action of the personified concept in goddess form. Choice d has no support.
410. d. This is stated in the third sentence ofparagraph
2. Zeus did not want to sire [father] a child who could eventually overthrow him. According to the passage, he felt it was safer to arrange for the child’s father to be a mortal. There is no support in the passage for any of the other choices.
411. c. This answer follows the logic of the previous
answer. A mortal child could never challenge the gods implies that Zeus feared that if the child were immortal, it would overthrow him. The other choices mention individual words that appear in the passage but have no support.
412. b. The second to the last line in paragraph 2 tells
us that Achilles was the son of Thetis and Peleus, and that the war will result in his death. Choice a is incorrect because there is no other mention of Zeus or events in the Trojan War other than Achilles’ death. Choice c is incorrect because Eris purposely created the conditions that would lead to the war to kill the child of the bride and groom. Choice d is incorrect because Achilles is the son of Thetis and Peleus, the bride and groom of the myth.
413. c. This lesson is discussed explicitly in paragraph
3. All other choices are irrelevant.
414. c. The husband had a civil servant’s job and
received a steady salary; the wife had a servant who cleaned for her. The couple lived in a dwelling that had several rooms. This implies that they lived comfortably. Choice a is incor¬rect because they obviously were not impover¬ished. Choice b is incorrect because the wife had a maid. Choice d is incorrect because this was the life the wife wanted to have, but instead had shabby walls, worn furniture etc.
415. d. This question relates to the previous one. This
choice presents the fact that the wife had a maid. Choice a does not deal with the couple’s economic standing, but only the wife’s before she was married. Choice b is tempting, but the poverty of her rooms is more in her eyes than a truthful economic indicator. How poverty stricken can she be if she has a maid? Choice c deals with a tablecloth that has been used three days in a row. It has nothing to do with eco¬nomic standing because it could have been washed by the maid or the wife, and the situa¬tion would have been remedied.
416. a. It is obvious from the description of the wife’s
thoughts in the first paragraph that she wished she had married a rich man. Instead, she slipped into marriage with a minor civil ser-vant. The woman is ashamed of her marriage and of her husband’s occupation to the point of making it sound like an accident, as one may slip on a wet floor. Choices b, c, and d are incorrect because the wife loving anything other than expensive things is never mentioned in the passage.
417. b. The husband’s delight with the homemade stew
only seems to send his wife into another bout of daydreams to escape her middle-class prison. Choice a is blatantly incorrect, because the hus¬band obviously enjoys homemade beef stew while the wife dreams of wings of grouse. Choice c is incorrect because the husband is either unaware of his wife’s anguish or doesn’t let it affect his delight in his dinner. Choice d is irrelevant to the passage.
418. d. This is reinforced by the last two sentences of
the passage. The wife admits she only loves rich things, believes she was made for them, and focuses all her desires on being admired and sought after, thinking only of herself at all times. Choice a is incorrect because the author paints a negative picture of the wife. Although choice b is tempting, the author does not develop the husband enough for him to become the focus of the passage. Choice c is incorrect because it is not developed in the pas¬sage. The focus is on the wife, not on class dis¬tinctions in general.
419. a. Adjectives are the words that describe nouns.
These are the words that truly add dimension to the descriptions of the home and the day-dreams of the wife. Innate, instinctive, grandest, gorgeous, gleaming, and pink are some of the adjectives that enrich the nouns of the wife’s dreams. Shabby, worn, ugly, and homemade are adjectives that add to the undesirable view she has of her present situation. None of the other choices add such richness to the passage.
420. b. This answer is explicitly stated in the first sen¬
tence of the selection. Choices a and d are not mentioned as a result of plaque-laden arteries. Choice c is too general to be the best answer.
365. b. Choice b includes the main points of the selec¬
tion and is not too broad. Choice a features minor points from the selection. Choice c also features minor points, with the addition of “History of the National Park System,” which is not included in the selection. Choice d lists points that are not discussed in the selection.
366. d. Choice d expresses the main idea of paragraph
4 of the selection. The information in choices a,
b, and c is not expressed in paragraph 4.
367. a. Choice a is correct, according to the second
sentence in paragraph 2. Choices b and c are mentioned in the selection, but not as causing the islands. Choice d is not mentioned in the selection.
368. c. Paragraph 4 discusses the visitors to Acadia
National Park, therefore, choice c is correct. Choices a, b, and d are not mentioned in the selection.
369. a. The first sentence, paragraph 3 states that the
length of the Maine coastline is 2,500 miles. Paragraph 1 states that a straight-line distance between the northernmost and southernmost coastal cities—not the length of the coastline— is 225 miles, so c is incorrect. Choices b and d are also incorrect.
370. a. This is the best choice because each paragraph
of the passage describes an inventor whose machine was a step toward the modern bicycle. There is no evidence to support choice b. Choices c and d are incorrect because they both make statements that, according to the passage, are untrue.
371. d. The fourth paragraph states that James Starley
added a gear to the pedals.
372. d. The passage gives the history of the bicycle.
Choice a is incorrect because few opinions are included in the passage. There is no support for choices b and c.