GRE care: Reading Comprehension Questions and answer Part – 7 [Nonfiction and Information Passages] | JobsCare.info

GRE care: Reading Comprehension Questions and answer Part – 7 [Nonfiction and Information Passages]

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Nonfiction and Information Passages

 

In this section, you will be dealing with nonfiction and information passages, such as the type you might find in a textbook. Mastering these types of passages and their questions is important, because they are increasingly being found in standardized tests. These passages are not necessarily more difficult than the ones you’ve already covered in the earlier chapters of this book. However, they do call more heavily for the spe¬cial skill of making inferences, of identifying implicit, as opposed to explicit, ideas stated in the text.
Remember what you’ve learned so far. Look at structure. Look for the main idea of the passage. Consider the purpose for which the passage was written. What clues can you deduce from the writing style about the author’s attitude toward the subject? Is the attitude positive? Negative? Objective? Try to pick out individual words that further each writer’s intent and support each writer’s opinion. If it helps, underline or make notes on important points. Active reading techniques like these will keep you focused on some very detailed reading comprehension passages.

Question 210 to 250:

Firefighters are often asked to speak to school and community groups about the importance of fire safety, particularly fire prevention and detection. Because smoke detectors reduce the risk of dying in a fire by half, firefighters often provide audi-ences with information on how to install these protective devices in their homes.
Specifically, they tell them these things: A smoke detector should be placed on each floor of a home. While sleeping, people are in partic¬ular danger of an emergent fire, and there must be a detector outside each sleeping area. A good site for a detector would be a hallway that runs between living spaces and bedrooms.
Because of the dead-air space that might be missed by turbulent hot air bouncing around above a fire, smoke detectors should be installed either on the ceiling at least four inches from the nearest wall, or high on a wall at least four, but no further than twelve, inches from the ceiling.
Detectors should not be mounted near win-dows, exterior doors, or other places where drafts might direct the smoke away from the unit. Nor should they be placed in kitchens and garages, where cooking and gas fumes are likely to cause false alarms.

210. Which organizational scheme does this list of
instructions follow?
a. hierarchical order
b. comparison-contrast
c. cause-and-effect
d. chronological order by topic
211. What is the main focus of this passage?
a. how firefighters carry out their responsibilities
b. the proper installation of home smoke detectors
c. the detection of dead-air space on walls and ceilings
d. how smoke detectors prevent fires in homes
212. The passage implies that dead-air space is most likely to be found
a. on a ceiling, between four and twelve inches from a wall.
b. close to where a wall meets a ceiling.
c. near an open window.
d. in kitchens and garages.
213. The passage states that, compared with people who do not have smoke detectors, persons who live in homes with smoke detectors have a
a. 50% better chance of surviving a fire.
b. 50% better chance of preventing a fire.
c. 75% better chance of detecting a hidden fire.
d. 100% better chance of not being injured in a fire.
214. A smoke detector should NOT be installed near a window because
a. outside fumes may trigger a false alarm.
b. a draft may create dead-air space.
c. a draft may pull smoke away from the detector.
d. outside noises may muffle the sound of the detector.
215. The passage indicates that one responsibility
of a firefighter is to a. install smoke detectors in the homes of res-idents in the community.
b. check homes to see if smoke detectors have been properly installed.
c. develop fire safety programs for commu¬nity leaders and school teachers.
d. speak to school children about the impor¬tance of preventing fires.
216. A smoke detector must always be placed
a. outside at least one of the bedrooms on any level of the home.
b. outside all bedrooms in a home.
c. in all hallways of a home.
d. in kitchens where fires are most likely to start.
Saving energy means saving money. Homeown-ers and renters know this basic fact, but they often don’t know what kinds of adjustments they can make in their homes and apartments that will result in savings.
For those willing to spend some time and money to reap long-term energy savings, an energy audit is the way to go. An energy auditor will come into your home and assess its energy efficiency. The auditor will pinpoint areas of your home that use the most energy and offer solutions to lower your energy use and costs. Trained energy auditors know what to look for and can locate a variety of flaws that may be resulting in energy inefficiency, including inadequate insulation, con¬struction flaws, and uneven heat distribution.
There are quicker and less costly measures that can be taken as well. One way to save money is to replace incandescent lights with fluorescents. This can result in a savings of more than 50% on your monthly lighting costs.
When it’s time to replace old appliances, it’s wise to spend a bit more for an energy-efficient model, and be sure that you are taking advantage of energy-saving settings already on your cur¬rent refrigerator, dishwasher, washing machine, or dryer.
Windows provide another opportunity to cut your energy costs. Caulk old windows that might be leaky to prevent drafts, and choose double-paned windows if you’re building an addition or replacing old windows.
Most areas of your home or apartment offer opportunities to save energy and money. The results are significant and are well worth the effort.
217. Which two main organizational schemes can
be identified in this passage?
a. hierarchical order and order by topic
b. order by topic and cause and effect
c. hierarchical order and chronological order
d. chronological order and compare and contrast
218. Which of the following ideas is NOT included
in this passage?
a. You can reduce your $130 monthly lighting costs to $65 by using fluorescent bulbs instead of incandescent.
b. Double-paned windows can cut energy costs.
c. Your local energy company will send an energy auditor at your request.
d. Some appliances have energy-saving settings.
219. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?
a. There are many things a homeowner or renter can do to save energy and money.
b. Hiring an energy auditor will save energy and money.
c. Homeowners and renters don’t know what they can do to save energy and money.
d. Replacing windows and light bulbs are well worth the effort and cost.
220. According to the passage, which of the follow¬ing would an energy auditor NOT do?
a. Check for construction flaws.
b. Look for problems with heat distribution.
c. Offer solutions to lower your energy costs.
d. Locate a variety of flaws that may result in energy inefficiency and fix them.
221. According the passage, double-paned windows
a. are energy efficient.
b. should only be used as replacement windows.
c. should only be used in new additions to homes.
d. will lower your heating costs by 50%.
Book clubs are a great way to meet new friends or keep in touch with old ones, while keeping up on your reading and participating in lively and intel¬lectually stimulating discussions. If you’re inter¬ested in starting a book club, you should consider the following options and recommendations.
The first thing you’ll need are members. Before recruiting, think carefully about how many
people you want to participate and also what the club’s focus will be. For example, some book clubs focus exclusively on fiction, others read nonfic¬tion. Some are even more specific, focusing only on a particular genre such as mysteries, science fiction, or romance. Others have a more flexible and open focus. All of these possibilities can make for a great club, but it is important to decide on a focus at the outset so the guidelines will be clear to the group and prospective member.
After setting the basic parameters, recruit¬ment can begin. Notify friends and family, adver¬tise in the local newspaper, and hang flyers on bulletin boards in local stores, colleges, libraries, and bookstores. When enough people express interest, schedule a kick-off meeting during which decisions will be made about specific guidelines that will ensure the club runs smoothly. This meeting will need to establish where the group will meet (rotating homes or a public venue such as a library or coffee shop); how often the group will meet, and on what day of the week and at what time; how long the meetings will be; how books will be chosen and by whom; who will lead the group (if anyone); and whether refreshments will be served and if so, who will supply them. By the end of this meeting, these guidelines should be set and a book selection and date for the first official meeting should be finalized.
Planning and running a book club is not without challenges, but when a book club is run effectively, the experience can be extremely rewarding for everyone involved.
222. Which of the following organizational pat-terns is the main one used in the passage?
a. chronological
b. hierarchical
c. comparison-contrast
d. cause and effect
223. According to the passage, when starting a book club, the first thing a person should do is
a. hang flyers in local establishments.
b. put an ad in a local newspaper.
c. decide on the focus and size of the club.
d. decide when and where the group will meet.
224. Which of the following would NOT be cov¬ered during the book club’s kick-off meeting?
a. deciding on whether refreshments will be served.
b. discussing and/or appointing a leader.
c. choosing the club’s first selection.
d. identifying what kinds of books or genre will be the club’s focus.
225. A good title for this passage would be
a. Book Clubs: A Great Way to Make New Friends
b. Starting a Successful Book Club: A Guide
c. Five Easy Steps to Starting a Successful Book Club
d. Reading in Groups: Sharing Knowledge, Nurturing Friendships
226. Which of the following is NOT something
that successful book clubs should do?
a. focus exclusively on one genre
b. have guidelines about where and when to meet
c. have a focus
d. decide how to choose and who will choose book selections
227. Which of the following inferences can be
drawn from the passage?
a. Smaller groups are better for a variety of reasons.
b. The social aspect of book clubs is more important than the intellectual.
c. Starting your own book club is better than joining an existing one.
d. When starting and running a book club, a casual approach is risky.
Last spring, employees of the Hartville Corpora¬tion organized a weeklong strike to protest poor working conditions and unreasonable company policies. The strike resulted in huge financial losses for the company and the threat of a national boycott on Hartville products. The situ¬ation resulted in the formation of an employee task force, supported by Hartville management, to review circumstances that led to the strike. The task-force findings follow:
■ Hartville’s overtime pay schedule is well below the national level, and overtime is mandatory at least once a week.
■ Employees working in the manufacturing department have an alarmingly high rate of repetitive stress injury. The equipment they are working with is extremely old and danger¬ous and does not meet current health and safety standards. The task force recommended that equipment be evaluated and brought up- to-date immediately.
■ Sick and personal day policies are unclear. Employees report conflicting and/or confus¬ing policies relating to sick and personal days, which have resulted in numerous misunder¬standings about procedures and allowances as well as unfair disciplinary action.
■ In the past four years, five pregnant women with clean work records were terminated soon after their pregnancies were public. In all five cases, the grounds for firing were not specifically cited, although one of the employ¬ees was told by her immediate supervisor that new mothers make very unreliable employees.
■ Hartville’s upper management is largely unaware of the dissatisfaction of employees. There is evidence that middle management withholds vital information leading to upper management’s underestimation of the sever¬ity of employee discontent.
228. Which of the following is the main organiza¬tional pattern used in the passage?
a. chronological order
b. hierarchical order
c. order by topic
d. cause and effect
229. According to the passage, why do Hartville employees have a high rate of repetitive stress injury?
a. The equipment they use is broken.
b. Their computer keyboards are outdated.
c. Hartville’s equipment is below standard.
d. They are under a great deal of pressure at work.
230. According to the passage, which of the follow¬ing was a specific task-force recommendation?
a. Upper management at Hartville should be more involved in the day-to-day operation of the company.
b. A new overtime pay policy should be implemented immediately.
c. The pregnant women who were fired should file lawsuits.
d. The equipment in the manufacturing department must be assessed.
231. According to the passage, one reason that the
Hartville upper management is unresponsive
is that
a. they are more concerned with saving money than protecting employees.
b. they are unaware of the degree of dissatis¬faction among their employees.
c. the company is about to be sold, and they are distracted.
d. they have not been trained in the latest management techniques.
232. Which of the following is NOT in the passage?
a. a finding about a problem within middle management
b. a discussion of suspicious employee terminations
c. a comparison between overtime pay at Hartville and the national average
d. an outline of the policy relating to sick and personal days
Mental and physical health professionals may consider referring clients and patients to a music therapist for a number of reasons. It seems a par-ticularly good choice for the social worker who is coordinating a client’s case. Music therapists use music to establish a relationship with the patient and to improve the patient’s health, using highly structured musical interactions. Patients and therapists may sing, play instruments, dance, compose, or simply listen to music.
The course of training for music therapists is comprehensive. In addition to formal musical and therapy training, music therapists are taught to discern what kinds of interventions will be most beneficial for each individual patient.
Because each patient is different and has different goals, the music therapist must be able to under-stand the patient’s situation and choose the music and activities that will do the most toward help¬ing the patient achieve his or her goals. The refer¬ring social worker can help this process by clearly communicating each client’s history.
Although patients may develop their musi¬cal skills, that is not the main goal of music ther¬apy. Any client who needs particular work on communication or on academic, emotional, and social skills, and who is not responding to tradi¬tional therapy, is an excellent candidate for music therapy.
233. Which of the following best organizes the
main topics addressed in this passage?
a. I. The role of music therapy in social work
II. Locating a music therapist
III. Referring patients to music therapists
b. I. Using music in therapy
II. A typical music-therapy intervention
III. When to prescribe music therapy for sociopaths
c. I. Music therapy and social work
II. Training for music therapists
III. Skills addressed by music therapy
d. I. How to choose a music therapist
II. When to refer to a music therapist
III. Who benefits the most from music therapy
234. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for this passage?
a. How to Use Music to Combat Depression
b. What Social Workers Need to Know about Music Therapy
c. Training for a Career in Music Therapy
d. The Social Worker as Music Therapist
235. According to information presented in the passage, music therapy can be prescribed for social work clients who
a. need to develop coping skills.
b. were orphaned as children.
c. need to resolve family issues.
d. need to improve social skills.
236. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the passage?
a. Music therapy can succeed where tradi-tional therapies have failed.
b. Music therapy is a relatively new field.
c. Music therapy is particularly beneficial for young children.
d. Music therapy is only appropriate in a lim¬ited number of circumstances.
In the summer, the Northern Hemisphere is slanted toward the sun, making the days longer and warmer than in winter. The first day of sum¬mer, June 21, is called summer solstice and is also the longest day of the year. However, June 21 marks the beginning of winter in the Southern Hemisphere, when that hemisphere is tilted away from the sun.
237. According to the passage, when it is summer
in the Northern Hemisphere, it is in
the Southern Hemisphere.
a. spring
b. summer
c. autumn
d. winter
238. It can be inferred from the passage that, in the
Southern Hemisphere, June 21 is the
a. autumnal equinox.
b. winter solstice.
c. vernal equinox.
d. summer solstice.
Jessie Street is sometimes called the Australian Eleanor Roosevelt. Like Roosevelt, Street lived a life of privilege, but she devoted her efforts to working for the rights of the disenfranchised, including workers, women, refugees, and Abo-rigines. In addition, she gained international fame when she was the only woman on the Australian delegation to the conference that founded the United Nations, just as Eleanor Roosevelt was for the United States.
239. Which of the following inferences may be drawn from the information presented in the passage?
a. Eleanor Roosevelt and Jessie Street worked together to include women in the United Nations Charter.
b. Usually, people who live lives of privilege do not spend much time participating in political activities.
c. Discrimination in Australia is much worse than it ever was in the United States.
d. At the time of the formation of the United Nations, few women were involved in inter-national affairs.
Light pollution is a growing problem worldwide. Like other forms of pollution, light pollution degrades the quality of the environment. Where it was once possible to look up at the night sky and see thousands of twinkling stars in the inky blackness, one now sees little more than the yellow glare of urban sky-glow. When we lose the ability to connect visually with the vastness of the uni¬verse by looking up at the night sky, we lose our connection with something profoundly impor¬tant to the human spirit, our sense of wonder.
240. The passage implies that the most serious
damage done by light pollution is to our
a. artistic appreciation.
b. sense of physical well-being.
c. cultural advancement.
d. spiritual selves.
Moscow has a history of chaotic periods of war that ended with the destruction of a once largely wooden city and the building of a new city on top of the rubble of the old. The result is a layered city, with each tier holding information about a part of Russia’s past. In some areas of the city, archae-ologists have reached the layer from 1147, the year of Moscow’s founding. Among the findings from the various periods of Moscow’s history are carved bones, metal tools, pottery, glass, jewelry, and crosses.
241. From the passage, the reader can infer that
a. the people of Moscow are more interested in modernization than in preservation.
b. the Soviet government destroyed many of the historic buildings in Russia.
c. Moscow is the oldest large city in Russia, founded in 1147.
d. Moscow has a history of invasions, with each new conqueror razing past structures.
Authentic Dhurrie rugs are hand woven in India. Today, they are usually made of wool, but they are descendants of cotton floor and bed coverings. In fact, the name Dhurrie comes from the Indian word dari, which means threads of cotton. The rugs are noted for their soft colors, their varieties of design, and they make a stunning focal point for any living room or dining room.
242. Which of the following is the most likely
intended audience for the passage?
a. people studying traditional Indian culture
b. people who are studying Indian domestic customs
c. people learning to operate a rug loom
d. people who enjoy interior decorating
Worldwide illiteracy rates have consistently declined in the last few decades. One of the major reasons for this decline is the sharp increase of lit-eracy rates among young women, which is a result of specific campaigns designed to increase edu-cational opportunities for girls. However, there are still an estimated 771 million illiterate adults in the world, about two-thirds of who are women.
243. Based on the passage, the author would tend to
agree with which of the following statements?
a. Men and women should have equal access to education.
b. Males have a greater need for higher educa¬tion than women.
c. Worldwide, women need medical care more than the ability to read.
d. It has been proven that women with increased education have fewer children.
Emperor Charlemagne of the Franks was crowned in 800 a.d. The Frankish Empire at that time extended over what is now Germany, Italy, and France. Charlemagne died in 814, but his brief reign marked the dawn of a distinctly Euro¬pean culture. The artists and thinkers that helped create this European civilization drew on the ancient texts of the Germanic, Celtic, Greek,
Roman, Hebrew, and Christian worlds.
. Consequently, they
were the groundwork for the laws, customs, and even attitudes of today’s Europeans.
244. Which sentence, if inserted into the blank line in the passage, would be most consistent with the writer’s purpose and intended audience?
a. Cultural traditions function to identify members of a culture to one another and, also, to allow the individual to self-identify.
b. Many of the traditions of these cultures remained active in Frankish society for centuries.
c. When tradition is lacking or is not honored by the younger generation in a society, there is danger that the culture will be lost.
d. It is unnecessary to discuss the origin of these traditions; it will only muddy the water.
245. Which of the following is the best meaning of the word culture as it is used in the passage?
a. the fashionable class
b. a community of interrelated individuals
c. a partnership
d. an organized group with a common goal
246. According to the passage, for how many years was Charlemagne Emperor of the Franks?
a. 14 years
b. 15 years
c. 13 years
d. 16 years
Coral reefs are among the most diverse and pro-ductive ecosystems on Earth. Consisting of both living and non-living components, this type of ecosystem is found in the warm, clear, shallow waters of tropical oceans worldwide. The func-tionality of the reefs ranges from providing food and shelter to fish and other forms of marine life to protecting the shore from the ill effects of ero¬sion and putrefaction. In fact, reefs actually cre¬ate land in tropical areas by formulating islands and contributing mass to continental shorelines.
Although coral looks like a plant, it is mainly comprised of the limestone skeleton of a tiny ani-mal called a coral polyp. While corals are the main components of reef structure, they are not the only living participants. Coralline algae cement the myriad corals, and other miniature organisms such as tubeworms and mollusks con¬tribute skeletons to this dense and diverse struc¬ture. Together, these living creatures construct many different types of tropical reefs.
247. Which of the following is the best meaning of
the underlined word putrefaction as it is used
in the first paragraph of the passage?
a. purification
b. decay
c. jettison
d. farming
248. Which of the following kinds of publications
would most likely contain this passage?
a. a history textbook
b. an advanced marine biology textbook
c. a collection of personal essays
d. a general circulation magazine about science and nature
249. According to the passage, which of the follow¬ing statements is NOT true?
a. Coral reefs are beneficial for fish.
b. Coral reefs are good for shorelines in tropical areas.
c. Coral reefs are composed exclusively of coral.
d. Coral reefs contain living and non-living components.
In 1899, Czar Nicholas II of Russia invited the nations of the world to a conference at The Hague. This conference—and a follow-up orga¬nized by Theodore Roosevelt in 1907—ushered in a period of vigorous growth in international law. This growth was in response to several factors, not the least of which was modern warfare’s increas¬ing potential for destruction. The recently con¬cluded Civil War in the United States made this potential clear.
During this growth, the subjects of inter¬national law were almost exclusively restricted to the relationships that countries had with one another. Issues of trade and warfare dominated both the disputes and the agreements of the
period. , the developments of this
period paved the way for further expansion of international law, which has occurred in the last
several years. , organizations such as
the United Nations and the International Court of Justice are greatly concerned not only with the way countries deal with one another, but with the ways in which they treat their own citizens.
250. Which words or phrases, if inserted in order into the blanks in the passage, would help the reader understand the sequence of the author’s ideas?
a. Therefore; In addition
b. However; Now
c. Furthermore; Yet
d. Even if; On the other hand

Answer to the question number 210 to 250

 

210. d. The passage details the proper locations for
smoke detectors and is ordered according to topic.
211. b. Although the passage mentions firefighters’
responsibilities (choice a), the main focus of the passage is the installation of smoke detectors. Choice c is only a detail. Choice d is not mentioned.
212. b. The answer can be found in the first sentence of
the third paragraph. Choice a may seem attrac¬tive because the passage contains the words four inches and twelve inches, but close reading will show it to be incorrect.
213. a. The answer is found in the first paragraph
(smoke detectors reduce the risk of dying in a fire by half).
214. c. The answer can be found in the next to last
sentence of the passage.
215. d. The answer is implied by the first sentence of
the passage. There is no information in the pas¬sage to indicate that the other choices are a fire¬fighter’s responsibility, even though they may be in certain real-life situations.
216. b. The second paragraph states that there should
be a smoke detector outside each sleeping area in a home. The last sentence states that smoke detectors should not be placed in kitchens (choice d).
217. b. Ideas are listed by topic, but there is some cause
and effect as well since the passage explains the reasons for the various steps. The other choices are incorrect because the passage does not list the ideas in order of importance (hierarchical) or in the order in which they have occurred or should occur (chronological). These steps can occur in any order.
218. c. The passage does say that a homeowner can
have an energy audit, but it says nothing about a local energy company providing that service. Choice a may seem attractive at first since those specific figures are not mentioned in the pas¬sage, but the third paragraph does say that flu¬orescent bulbs can save 50% on lighting costs, and $65 is almost 50% less than $135. Choices b and d are clearly stated in the passage.
219. a. The passage is offering recommendations about
the many things homeowners and renters can do to save money and energy. The other choices may all be mentioned in the passage, but they are too specific to be the main idea.
220. d. The passage says nothing about an energy audi¬
tor actually fixing the flaws him- or herself, simply that the auditor will locate the flaws and offer possible money-saving solutions.
221. a. The fifth paragraph states that double-paned
windows can cut energy costs, so we can infer that this means that they are energy efficient. The other three choices are not stated in the passage.
222. a. The passage is organized chronologically. The
steps for starting a book club are listed in the order in which they should occur.
223. c. The second sentence of the second paragraph
states this clearly.
224. d. Deciding on the club’s focus—the kinds of
books or genre the club will read—should be done prior to this meeting and prior to recruiting members, according to the second paragraph.
225. b. This is the only appropriate title. Choice a is too
specific, since the passage indicates that making new friends is just one component of a book club. Choice c is incorrect because this passage does not contain numbered steps. Choice d is too vague, and the tone is inappropriate.
226. a. The passage states this is one possible focus but
does not say successful book clubs must focus exclusively on one genre. The other choices are all in the passage. Choice c might seem attrac¬tive at first, but the passage clearly states that a focus should be chosen, even if that focus is defined as flexible and open.
227. d. The tone and specificity of the passage infer
that a successful book club requires careful planning.
228. d. This is a listing of reasons why Hartville
employees are unhappy and went on strike.
229. c. The second sentence of the second task-force
finding states that Hartville’s equipment does not meet current health and safety standards. Choices a and b may be attractive at first, but choice a is incorrect because it doesn’t say the equipment is broken, just that it is old and dan¬gerous. Choice b is incorrect because computer keyboards are not mentioned, and there is no indication that computer keyboards are included in the equipment being discussed.
230. d. The only specific recommendation in the task-
force findings appears in the second finding regarding equipment in the manufacturing department, in the final sentence.
231. b. The final finding of the task force states that due
to the withholding of information by middle management, upper management is unaware of the severity of employee discontent. The other choices are not stated in the passage.
232. d. The third task-force finding states that sick and
personal day policies are unclear, and no outline of an actual policy is provided.
233. c. Choice c provides the best outline of the pas¬
sage. The other choices all contain points that are not covered by the passage.
234. b. This passage provides information to social
workers about music therapy, as the title in choice b indicates. Choice d is incorrect because the first sentence speaks of mental- and physical- health professionals referring their clients and patients to music therapists; the second sentence indicates that it (meaning a referral) seems a par¬ticularly good choice for the social worker. Choice c is possible, but does not summarize the passage as well as choice b. Choice a refers to a topic not covered in the passage.
235. d. Although the other choices may be correct,
they require knowledge beyond the passage. Based on the information in the passage, d is the best choice.
236. a. Based particularly on the last sentence of the
passage, a is the best choice. The other choices are beyond the scope of the passage.
237. d. In the Northern Hemisphere, June 21 would be
summer; however, according to the passage, it is the beginning of winter in the Southern Hemisphere.
238. b. Logically, if June 21 is called the summer sol¬
stice in the Northern Hemisphere, then that same day would be the winter solstice in the Southern Hemisphere.
239. d. Because the author mentions that one of the
two women gained international fame because she attended the international conference, the reader can surmise that for a woman to attend was a rare occurrence; therefore, choice d is the best answer. Choices b and c are beyond the scope of the passage. Choice a might be true but would require information not contained in the passage.
240. d. See the final sentence of the passage.
241. d. Answer d is the most accurate conclusion
because the first sentence speaks of periods of war. The other choices, whether true or false, are not addressed in the selection.
242. d. Although the people in the other choices
might read this passage, it is not directed toward scholars (choices a and b), nor is there anything in it about operating a loom (choice c). The light, informative tone, as well as the subject matter of the final sentence, particu¬larly indicate that the passage is directed toward interior decorators.
243. a. Choices c and d are beyond the scope of this
passage and a reader would not be able to tell if the author believed them, based on the infor¬mation provided. Choice c reflects a point of view that would be unlikely for the author based on the content of this passage, which implies that the author believes that women and men have an equal need for education.
244. b. The missing sentence is in a portion of the pas¬
sage that discusses the long-term impacts of the Franks; therefore, b is the best choice. Choices a and c are written in a style appropri¬ate to the passage, but the information is not appropriate. Choice d is more informal in style than the rest of the passage.
245. b. Although all of the choices are possible defini¬
tions of culture, the passage is speaking of a community of interrelated individuals, namely, Europeans.
246. a. The passage explicitly states that Charlemagne
was crowned emperor in 800 and died in 814— a period of 14 years. Therefore, b, c, and d are mathematically incorrect.
247. b. The phrase ill effects ofthat precedes the words
erosion and putrefaction means that putrefac-tion is a negative consequence, as is erosion. The other choices are either neutral or positive.
248. d. This passage is written in a style directed to a
general audience; therefore, choice b is not cor¬rect, as an advanced marine biology textbook would contain a more specialized style and level of writing. Choice a is incorrect because the subject of the passage is not history. This pas¬sage is not a personal essay, so choice c is also incorrect.
249. c. The second sentence of the second paragraph
states that, while corals are the main compo-nents of reef structure, they are not the only liv¬ing participants.
250. b. The context of the passage indicates that the
sentences in question are pointing out an unforeseen consequence (however) and the cur¬rent situation (now). The other choices would result in meanings that do not fit with the flow of information in the rest of the passage.

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